How come there are no darker skin colours as would be historically accurate for about 10 to 30 percent of inhabitants within 14th century England? This feels like some racially motivated fantasy by someone who has no actual knowledge of the time period and international middle age trade.
30 percent of 14th century england? Are you crazy?! Not even 5% and only in the largest trading citys like London. No dark skinned people went to England and just started farming there.
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